|Pathologically Eclectic Rubbish Lister|
Re^4: Why Perl boolean expression sometimes treated as lvalue?by Anonymous Monk
|on Feb 11, 2013 at 06:45 UTC||Need Help??|
If so, your message does not help. Please clarify the question if you think I didn't understand it.
Consider that you didn't miss the point -- in what way does your reply constitute an answer or an explanation?
foo( $blah && $foo ); works to alias $foo
$ref = \($blah && $foo); works to reference $foo
( $blah && $foo ) = foo(); is illegal
Where is this documented? Why is it illegal?
Oh, ikegami says it doesn't return a copy (why would it) -- who asked about a copy ?