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| laziness, impatience, and hubris | |
| PerlMonks |
Re^4: Why Perl boolean expression sometimes treated as lvalue?by Anonymous Monk |
| on Feb 11, 2013 at 06:45 UTC ( #1018101=note: print w/ replies, xml ) | Need Help?? |
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If so, your message does not help. Please clarify the question if you think I didn't understand it. Consider that you didn't miss the point -- in what way does your reply constitute an answer or an explanation? foo( $blah && $foo ); works to alias $foo $ref = \($blah && $foo); works to reference $foo ( $blah && $foo ) = foo(); is illegal Where is this documented? Why is it illegal? Oh, ikegami says it doesn't return a copy (why would it) -- who asked about a copy ?
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