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Re^3: Equivalency of Codeby DrHyde (Prior) |
on Feb 08, 2005 at 05:39 UTC ( #428992=note: print w/replies, xml ) | Need Help?? |
The point is that $x++ and $x += 1 don't just fiddle with the value of $x. Those statements also have values themselves. If a bit of code is to be equivalent to another, then it needs to both have the same side-effects and the same value as the other does.
I try not to think about operator overloading or tieing :-)
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